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If \( \left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 2 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & 3 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right] \ldots\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & \mathrm{n}-1 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}1 & 78 \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right] \), then the inverse of \( \left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & \mathrm{n} \\ 0 & 1\end{array}\right] \) is
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