Duration: 3:59

9 views

0

Let \( f \) be the subset of \( \mathbf{Q} \times \mathbf{Z} \) defined by \( f=\left\{\left(\frac{m}{n}, m\right): m, n \in \mathbf{Z}, n \neq 0\right\} \). Is \( f \) a function from \( Q \) to \( Z \) ? Justify your answer.
Hint. \( f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=1 \) and \( f\left(\frac{2}{4}\right)=2 \) but \( \frac{1}{2}=\frac{2}{4} \).
📲PW App Link - https://bit.ly/YTAI_PWAP
🌐PW Website - https://www.pw.live