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If from Lagrange's mean value theorem, we have
\[
f^{\prime}\left(x_{1}\right)=\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a} \text {, then }
\]
(A) \( ax_{1} \leq b \)
(B) \( ax_{1}b \)
(C) \( a \leq x_{1}b \)
(D) \( a \leq x_{1} \leq b \)
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